Monday, 17 June 2013

Does the Quran 5:68 Ask Muslims to Accept the 4 Gospels in the New Testament? No (Ravi Zacharias International Ministries' Nabeel Qureshi Rebuked for Ignorance/Intellectual Dishonesty)

Have you come across Christian missionaries throwing out their old and tired argument that the Quran asks Muslims to follow the 4 Gospels of the New Testament? It’s a very popular Christian missionary device. It’s a very deceptive and disingenuous device.

Here we see one of Ravi Zacharias’ team members, Dr Nabeel Qureshi (prior to joining RZIM), use such an argument and in the process look quite foolish and/or intellectually dishonest.

Shadid Lewis Rebukes Nabeel Qureshi of RZIM for intellectual dishonesty and/or ignorance




So Nabeel Qureshi of RZIM appealed to Surah 5:68 in order to convince Muslims to accept the 4 Gospels in the New Testament (Matthew, Mark, Luke and John).


Say (O Muhammad SAW) "O people of the Scripture (Jews and Christians)! You have nothing (as regards guidance) till you act according to the Taurât (Torah), the Injeel (Gospel), and what has (now) been sent down to you from your Lord (the Qur'ân)." Verily, that which has been sent down to you (Muhammad SAW) from your Lord increases in most of them (their) obstinate rebellion and disbelief. So be not sorrowful over the people who disbelieve. (5:68 Dr Mohsin translation)

As Shadid Lewis (Muslim Debate Initiative) points out, the Verse (5:68) speaks about the Gospel (singular – modern Christians have 4 different books which they call Gospels) and that the Verse instructs the people to act in accordance with the Gospel, Torah AND the Quran (the Quran teaches that God has no son and Jesus did not die).

Shadid also highlights some CONTEXT by referring to a Verse earlier on in the chapter (5:46)


And in their footsteps, We sent 'Īsā (Jesus), son of Maryam (Mary)[], confirming the Taurât (Torah) that had come before him, and We gave him the Injeel (Gospel), in which was guidance and light and confirmation of the Taurât (Torah) that had come before it, a guidance and an admonition for Al-Muttaqûn (the pious - see V.2:2). (5:46, Dr Mohsin translation)

This Verse teaches us that God gave Jesus the Injeel (Gospel). We all know Jesus never even saw the books (Gospels) of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John. These books NEVER existed at the time of Jesus; they were written DECADES AFTER Jesus’ departure from the world. So clearly the Quran is not speaking about the 4 ‘Gospels’ in the New Testament. Simple logic!

It would be intellectual dishonesty on the part of the Christian to present this argument. We appeal to Dr Ravi Zacharias, Dr Nabeel Qureshi and the rest of the team at Ravi Zacharias International Ministries to ensure their staff members do not present such intellectually dishonest argumentation. I would also like to ask Nabeel to retract and denounce such argumentation.
 
Related:
 
 

Invitation to Christians and Jews to become Muslims

What is the common theme shared by the original Gospel, original Torah and the Quran? Pure monotheism – belief in One God!

At the end of the day, it’s incumbent on us that we worship God alone. Jesus was a Prophet of God. He was not God. Jews have not believed in Prophets Jesus and Prophet Muhammad. I urge Jews to come to Islam in order to accept the Truth.

Please see the following links to learn more about Islam:

 

11 comments:

Anonymous said...

From Minoria:

Regarding the word Injeel in the Koran it being in the singular and it meaning,according to the article,the message given by Allah to Jesus and not a book (in suras 5:46,5:68)

In sura 7:157 it says you find(present tense in Arabic) Muhammad in the Torah and Gospel(singular)

That can only refer to the message of Allah given to Jesus in the form of prophecies about Muhammad that can be found in the gospel of John(only 1 book,not Matthew,Mark and Luke).

Sura 61:6 says Jesus actually said a prophet called Ahmed would come after him and according to sura 7:157 you would have to find him somewhere in John.

The rest is debate.Does John have any phrase that clearly points to Muhammad?Or better said to a Muhammad in the 7th century?

It is because of 7:157 and only because of that 1 verse that Islam stands or falls,he has to be somewhere in John.

Anonymous said...

Why does he have to be mentioned in John ? John was written how long after Jesus ?

Anonymous said...

John was written by an eyewitness prior to the destruction of Jerusalem.

Muslim Zeal said...

Snow,

I'm mirroring your videos iA. Don't mind if I do ;). Just tell me how to get annotated links into my videos so I can reroute folks to your site.

Radical Moderate said...

Snow man ok were is it? Were is this Islamic Torah? Where is this Islamic Ingeel that the people of Mohameds time were to judge by?

Where is it? Show it to us so you can judge by it?

Yahya Snow said...

@Muslim Zeal

Brother, I think once you have uploaded the video you go to edit and add annotations etc.

I have never used that facility though so I'm not 100%.

A man as smart as yourself with editing and video-making should know :)

May Allah bless you further and make Ramadan successful for you and accepted. Ameen

Radical Moderate said...

Snowman

How can I follow the Quran if I can not do what it says and that is refer to the Islamic Ingeel and Islamic Torah if it is not with me?

Snowman Did the Jews and Christians in the time of Mohamed have the Islamic Torah and Islamic Injeel?

Anonymous said...

From Minoria:

Anon said:

"Why does he have to be mentioned in John ? John was written how long after Jesus ?"

Sura 7:157 says "find in the Gospel",it is in the present tense,so it refers to some writing in the 7th century.Since it is in the singular and since the only phrases Muslims can refer to as saying apply to Muhammad(the Paraclete sayings and the "the Propeht" sayings)are in John then it is the only candidate.

Anonymous said...

From Minoria:

I forgot to add that Shabir Ally believes,based on some scholars,that chapters 15 and 16 of John are an insertion by a third author.

I agree chapter 21 is by a second author,since John has 2 conclusions.But I dont agree with a 3rd author.

Anyway Shabir Ally says that(I think it was Raymond Brown) thinks chapters 15-16,though a later addition represent or maybe represent older material.

So Shabir Ally thinks the 3 Paraclete sayings in those 2 chapters prove the historical Jesus prophesized about Muhammad.

I disagree because a condition is imposed in the prophecy itself.Even if it were about a man to come after Jesus there is a technical difficulty.

Radical Moderate said...

Snowman you wrote...

“This Verse teaches us that God gave Jesus the Injeel (Gospel). We all know Jesus never even saw the books (Gospels) of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John. These books NEVER existed at the time of Jesus; they were written DECADES AFTER Jesus’ departure from the world. So clearly the Quran is not speaking about the 4 ‘Gospels’ in the New Testament. Simple logic!

It would be intellectual dishonesty on the part of the Christian to present this argument.”

My Response:
Snowman since Muslims can not produce any evidence that Jesus walked around with a BOOK called the Gospel or revealed a book called the Gospel, or that Christians in 7th century Arabia or Christians from any time had a single book called “The Gospel” that was handed down to Jesus and taught the Islamic Jesus. It is Muslims who are intellectually dishonest presenting such an argument that the Quran is telling Christians in seventh century Arabia to judge by a book that did not exist and has never existed. Actually it is intellectually dishonest of Mohamed or Allah to make such an argument.

The sad truth is that the text of the Quran in Surah 5 demonstrates that the Quran itself is corrupt, since Mohamed I mean Allah did not know what he was talking about.

I appeal to Yahya Snow to insure that all Muslims do not present such intellectually dishonest argumentation. I would also like to ask Yahya Snow to retract and denounce such argumentation found in the Quran and all Muslims to disregard such an intellectually dishonest book and embrace the true Gospel of Jesus which is told in the 4 Gospels of Mathew, Mark, Luke, and John.

Anonymous said...

Do not put too much hope on Greek texts as word of God. Where is Logia of Jesus in Aramaic. Where is Matthew’s Aramaic gospel?

P46 (175CE) is Greek manuscript with the largest percentage of difference on record. This just proved that Church have been changing words since early 2nd century at will.

Here is the words of the early church father, Origen (3rd century CE):
“The differences among the manuscripts have become great, either through the negligence of some copyists or through the perverse audacity of others; they either neglect to check over what they have transcribed, or, in the process of checking, they make additions or deletions as they please.” Origen, early church father in “Commentary on Matthew.”

Regarding the oldest surviving fragment, Colin Roberts compared P52 writings using ONLY 5 samples from the early 2nd century CE back in 1935 and concluded based on those 5 samples; P52 was from the early 2nd century.

(Brent Nongbri’s 2005. The Use and Abuse of P52: Papyrological Pitfalls in the Dating of the Fourth Gospel)
What I have done is to show that any serious consideration of the window of possible dates for P52 must include dates in the later second and early third centuries. – Brent

Compare with 4th century codexes. You will be surprise how Holy Spirit inside the scribes fail to prevent them from changing words of God ever since the beginning.