Friday 7 March 2014

Christian asks Muslim a question about Mark 3:35

Question: I wanted to ask you about Mark 3:35. Is it the word of God? Does it faithfully record the words of Jesus? I've noticed that you quote it at the end of many of your posts, so I'm intrigued about your position on this.

Answer:

Does it faithfully record the words of Jesus?

We must remember that scholars believe Jesus (p) did not speak Greek thus the 4 Gospels which modern-day Christians have in their New Testament cannot be attributed to Jesus (p). We must also keep in mind the lack of reliability of the 'Gospels' in the NT - these books were scribed by unauthorised and unknown people (thus the truth-seeker cannot accept any quotation these books attribute to Jesus - would you trust a medical book which is of unknown authorship?). Before, moving on I want to explain what I mean by 'unauthorised'. Jesus never saw nor sanctioned these 4 Gospels in the NT. A number of 'Gospels' were penned after the ministry of Jesus - all of which Jesus never saw nor sanctioned. We are not sure how many Gospels were penned but the Church ended up choosing 4 of these Gospels which we find in the modern-day Bibles to this day.

On top of this the writings of the unknown and unauthorised writers of these Gospels were tampered with during the copying process. Christian evangelical scholars admit chunks of text have been added to these books. They are not sure whether other parts of their 'Gospels' are forgeries or not. For them, any part of their Gospels could be shown to be an addition (forgery) with a new manuscript find tomorrow:
http://thefactsaboutislam.blogspot.co.uk/2014/02/a-question-for-melissa-cain-travis.html

We have established the nature of the Gospels in the NT to be untrustworthy.

So why is Mark 3:35 so interesting?

Think about it, it's a quote attributed to Jesus (p) which rather interestingly clearly shows Jesus not to be God and the trinity to be a false belief:

Whoever does God’s will is my brother and sister and mother. [NIV]

Think about it, here Mark is showing Jesus is not God. Ponder upon this. In my view this is one the most problematic verse in the Gospels for the staunch Trinitarian.

If you have thought about it, God and Jesus (p) are shown to be 2 distinct beings (not the same being) AND it's teaching Jesus has spiritual brothers and sisters - of course God does not have brothers and sisters (spiritual or otherwise).

For those who have reflected on it further still you will realise it's effectively ordering people to be MUSLIMS (Muslim = one who submits to the Will of God) and that Muslims are the borthers and sisters of Jesus (p)!

Here is my previous discussion on Mark 3:35 which may add something to this post:
http://thefactsaboutislam.blogspot.co.uk/2009/12/jesus-has-muslim-brothers-sisters-and.html

Recommended for all Christians:

Christians having dreams and becoming Muslims

Convert to Islam

Jesus taught people to do the Will of God (according to Mark 3:35) in order to become his brothers, mothers or sisters. A Muslim means one who submits to the Will of God. Do you want to become a brother of Jesus? If yes, become a Muslim. Now is the time.

Learn about Islam:
http://www.thedeenshow.com

23 comments:

Radical Moderate said...
This comment has been removed by a blog administrator.
Radical Moderate said...

Run Rabbit Run

BlahBlah Snow

I see you are still hiding the shame of your god and prophet, since you seem to be unable or un willing to think logically and rationally I'm going to break this all down for you.

Do you agree or disagree with these statements.

1. The Iddah period is the time frame that a husband must abstain from having sex with his wife if he intends to divorce her.
2. The reason for this Iddah period is to ensure that a Muslims future X wife is not pregnant with his child before he divorces her.
3. Other then a miraculous conception like Jesus Christ, the only way a woman would be able to get pregnant in 7th century Arabia was via some sort of sexual intercourse, resulting in seminal fluid entering the vagina.
4. The Quran establishes how long a husband is to go with out sexual intercourse (iddah period) before he can divorce his wife.

Yahya if you could just please answer if you agree or disagree and if you disagree tell me what number you disagree with and why.


And those who no longer expect menstruation among your women - if you doubt, then their period is three months, and [also for] those who have not menstruated. And for those who are pregnant, their term is until they give birth. And whoever fears Allah - He will make for him of his matter ease.

[65:5] اور تمہاری عورتوں میں سے جو حیض سے مایوس ہوچکی ہوں اگر تمہیں شک ہو تو ان کی عدت تین مہینے ہے اور اُن کی بھی جو حائضہ نہیں ہوئیں۔ اور جہاں تک حمل والیوں کا تعلق ہے اُن کی عدت وضعِ حمل ہے۔ اور جو اللہ کا تقویٰ اختیار کرے اللہ اپنے حکم سے اس کے لئے آسانی پیدا کردے گا۔

Allah the Exalted clarifies the waiting period of the woman in menopause. And that is the one whose menstruation has stopped due to her older age. Her `Iddah is three months instead of the three monthly cycles for those who menstruate, which is based upon the Ayah in (Surat) Al-Baqarah. ﴿see 2:228﴾ The same for the young, who have not reached the years of menstruation. Their `Iddah is three months like those in menopause.

Al maududi
They may not have menstruated as yet either because of young age, or delayed menstrual discharge as it happens in the case of some women, or because of no discharge at all throughout life which, though rare, may also be the case. In any case, the waiting-period of such a woman is the same as of the woman, who has stopped menstruation, that is three months from the time divorce was pronounced.

Al maududi
They may not have menstruated as yet either because of young age, or delayed menstrual discharge as it happens in the case of some women, or because of no discharge at all throughout life which, though rare, may also be the case. In any case, the waiting-period of such a woman is the same as of the woman, who has stopped menstruation, that is three months from the time divorce was pronounced.

Radical Moderate said...

Run Rabbit Run

BlahBlah Snow

I see you are still hiding the shame of your god and prophet, since you seem to be unable or un willing to think logically and rationally I'm going to break this all down for you.

Do you agree or disagree with these statements.

1. The Iddah period is the time frame that a husband must abstain from having sex with his wife if he intends to divorce her.
2. The reason for this Iddah period is to ensure that a Muslims future X wife is not pregnant with his child before he divorces her.
3. Other then a miraculous conception like Jesus Christ, the only way a woman would be able to get pregnant in 7th century Arabia was via some sort of sexual intercourse, resulting in seminal fluid entering the vagina.
4. The Quran establishes how long a husband is to go with out sexual intercourse (iddah period) before he can divorce his wife.

Yahya if you could just please answer if you agree or disagree and if you disagree tell me what number you disagree with and why.


And those who no longer expect menstruation among your women - if you doubt, then their period is three months, and [also for] those who have not menstruated. And for those who are pregnant, their term is until they give birth. And whoever fears Allah - He will make for him of his matter ease.

[65:5] اور تمہاری عورتوں میں سے جو حیض سے مایوس ہوچکی ہوں اگر تمہیں شک ہو تو ان کی عدت تین مہینے ہے اور اُن کی بھی جو حائضہ نہیں ہوئیں۔ اور جہاں تک حمل والیوں کا تعلق ہے اُن کی عدت وضعِ حمل ہے۔ اور جو اللہ کا تقویٰ اختیار کرے اللہ اپنے حکم سے اس کے لئے آسانی پیدا کردے گا۔

Allah the Exalted clarifies the waiting period of the woman in menopause. And that is the one whose menstruation has stopped due to her older age. Her `Iddah is three months instead of the three monthly cycles for those who menstruate, which is based upon the Ayah in (Surat) Al-Baqarah. ﴿see 2:228﴾ The same for the young, who have not reached the years of menstruation. Their `Iddah is three months like those in menopause.

Al maududi
They may not have menstruated as yet either because of young age, or delayed menstrual discharge as it happens in the case of some women, or because of no discharge at all throughout life which, though rare, may also be the case. In any case, the waiting-period of such a woman is the same as of the woman, who has stopped menstruation, that is three months from the time divorce was pronounced.

Al maududi
They may not have menstruated as yet either because of young age, or delayed menstrual discharge as it happens in the case of some women, or because of no discharge at all throughout life which, though rare, may also be the case. In any case, the waiting-period of such a woman is the same as of the woman, who has stopped menstruation, that is three months from the time divorce was pronounced.

Radical Moderate said...

Run Rabbit Run

BlahBlah Snow

I see you are still hiding the shame of your god and prophet, since you seem to be unable or un willing to think logically and rationally I'm going to break this all down for you.

Do you agree or disagree with these statements.

1. The Iddah period is the time frame that a husband must abstain from having sex with his wife if he intends to divorce her.
2. The reason for this Iddah period is to ensure that a Muslims future X wife is not pregnant with his child before he divorces her.
3. Other then a miraculous conception like Jesus Christ, the only way a woman would be able to get pregnant in 7th century Arabia was via some sort of sexual intercourse, resulting in seminal fluid entering the vagina.
4. The Quran establishes how long a husband is to go with out sexual intercourse (iddah period) before he can divorce his wife.

Yahya if you could just please answer if you agree or disagree and if you disagree tell me what number you disagree with and why.


And those who no longer expect menstruation among your women - if you doubt, then their period is three months, and [also for] those who have not menstruated. And for those who are pregnant, their term is until they give birth. And whoever fears Allah - He will make for him of his matter ease.

[65:5] اور تمہاری عورتوں میں سے جو حیض سے مایوس ہوچکی ہوں اگر تمہیں شک ہو تو ان کی عدت تین مہینے ہے اور اُن کی بھی جو حائضہ نہیں ہوئیں۔ اور جہاں تک حمل والیوں کا تعلق ہے اُن کی عدت وضعِ حمل ہے۔ اور جو اللہ کا تقویٰ اختیار کرے اللہ اپنے حکم سے اس کے لئے آسانی پیدا کردے گا۔

Allah the Exalted clarifies the waiting period of the woman in menopause. And that is the one whose menstruation has stopped due to her older age. Her `Iddah is three months instead of the three monthly cycles for those who menstruate, which is based upon the Ayah in (Surat) Al-Baqarah. ﴿see 2:228﴾ The same for the young, who have not reached the years of menstruation. Their `Iddah is three months like those in menopause.

Al maududi
They may not have menstruated as yet either because of young age, or delayed menstrual discharge as it happens in the case of some women, or because of no discharge at all throughout life which, though rare, may also be the case. In any case, the waiting-period of such a woman is the same as of the woman, who has stopped menstruation, that is three months from the time divorce was pronounced.

Al maududi
They may not have menstruated as yet either because of young age, or delayed menstrual discharge as it happens in the case of some women, or because of no discharge at all throughout life which, though rare, may also be the case. In any case, the waiting-period of such a woman is the same as of the woman, who has stopped menstruation, that is three months from the time divorce was pronounced.

Radical Moderate said...

Run Rabbit Run

BlahBlah Snow

I see you are still hiding the shame of your god and prophet, since you seem to be unable or un willing to think logically and rationally I'm going to break this all down for you.

Do you agree or disagree with these statements.

1. The Iddah period is the time frame that a husband must abstain from having sex with his wife if he intends to divorce her.
2. The reason for this Iddah period is to ensure that a Muslims future X wife is not pregnant with his child before he divorces her.
3. Other then a miraculous conception like Jesus Christ, the only way a woman would be able to get pregnant in 7th century Arabia was via some sort of sexual intercourse, resulting in seminal fluid entering the vagina.
4. The Quran establishes how long a husband is to go with out sexual intercourse (iddah period) before he can divorce his wife.

Yahya if you could just please answer if you agree or disagree and if you disagree tell me what number you disagree with and why.


And those who no longer expect menstruation among your women - if you doubt, then their period is three months, and [also for] those who have not menstruated. And for those who are pregnant, their term is until they give birth. And whoever fears Allah - He will make for him of his matter ease.

[65:5] اور تمہاری عورتوں میں سے جو حیض سے مایوس ہوچکی ہوں اگر تمہیں شک ہو تو ان کی عدت تین مہینے ہے اور اُن کی بھی جو حائضہ نہیں ہوئیں۔ اور جہاں تک حمل والیوں کا تعلق ہے اُن کی عدت وضعِ حمل ہے۔ اور جو اللہ کا تقویٰ اختیار کرے اللہ اپنے حکم سے اس کے لئے آسانی پیدا کردے گا۔

Allah the Exalted clarifies the waiting period of the woman in menopause. And that is the one whose menstruation has stopped due to her older age. Her `Iddah is three months instead of the three monthly cycles for those who menstruate, which is based upon the Ayah in (Surat) Al-Baqarah. ﴿see 2:228﴾ The same for the young, who have not reached the years of menstruation. Their `Iddah is three months like those in menopause.

Al maududi
They may not have menstruated as yet either because of young age, or delayed menstrual discharge as it happens in the case of some women, or because of no discharge at all throughout life which, though rare, may also be the case. In any case, the waiting-period of such a woman is the same as of the woman, who has stopped menstruation, that is three months from the time divorce was pronounced.

Al maududi
They may not have menstruated as yet either because of young age, or delayed menstrual discharge as it happens in the case of some women, or because of no discharge at all throughout life which, though rare, may also be the case. In any case, the waiting-period of such a woman is the same as of the woman, who has stopped menstruation, that is three months from the time divorce was pronounced.

Radical Moderate said...

Run Rabbit Run

BlahBlah Snow

I see you are still hiding the shame of your god and prophet, since you seem to be unable or un willing to think logically and rationally I'm going to break this all down for you.

Do you agree or disagree with these statements.

1. The Iddah period is the time frame that a husband must abstain from having sex with his wife if he intends to divorce her.
2. The reason for this Iddah period is to ensure that a Muslims future X wife is not pregnant with his child before he divorces her.
3. Other then a miraculous conception like Jesus Christ, the only way a woman would be able to get pregnant in 7th century Arabia was via some sort of sexual intercourse, resulting in seminal fluid entering the vagina.
4. The Quran establishes how long a husband is to go with out sexual intercourse (iddah period) before he can divorce his wife.

Yahya if you could just please answer if you agree or disagree and if you disagree tell me what number you disagree with and why.


And those who no longer expect menstruation among your women - if you doubt, then their period is three months, and [also for] those who have not menstruated. And for those who are pregnant, their term is until they give birth. And whoever fears Allah - He will make for him of his matter ease.

[65:5] اور تمہاری عورتوں میں سے جو حیض سے مایوس ہوچکی ہوں اگر تمہیں شک ہو تو ان کی عدت تین مہینے ہے اور اُن کی بھی جو حائضہ نہیں ہوئیں۔ اور جہاں تک حمل والیوں کا تعلق ہے اُن کی عدت وضعِ حمل ہے۔ اور جو اللہ کا تقویٰ اختیار کرے اللہ اپنے حکم سے اس کے لئے آسانی پیدا کردے گا۔

Allah the Exalted clarifies the waiting period of the woman in menopause. And that is the one whose menstruation has stopped due to her older age. Her `Iddah is three months instead of the three monthly cycles for those who menstruate, which is based upon the Ayah in (Surat) Al-Baqarah. ﴿see 2:228﴾ The same for the young, who have not reached the years of menstruation. Their `Iddah is three months like those in menopause.

Al maududi
They may not have menstruated as yet either because of young age, or delayed menstrual discharge as it happens in the case of some women, or because of no discharge at all throughout life which, though rare, may also be the case. In any case, the waiting-period of such a woman is the same as of the woman, who has stopped menstruation, that is three months from the time divorce was pronounced.

Al maududi
They may not have menstruated as yet either because of young age, or delayed menstrual discharge as it happens in the case of some women, or because of no discharge at all throughout life which, though rare, may also be the case. In any case, the waiting-period of such a woman is the same as of the woman, who has stopped menstruation, that is three months from the time divorce was pronounced.

Radical Moderate said...

Run Rabbit Run

BlahBlah Snow

I see you are still hiding the shame of your god and prophet, since you seem to be unable or un willing to think logically and rationally I'm going to break this all down for you.

Do you agree or disagree with these statements.

1. The Iddah period is the time frame that a husband must abstain from having sex with his wife if he intends to divorce her.
2. The reason for this Iddah period is to ensure that a Muslims future X wife is not pregnant with his child before he divorces her.
3. Other then a miraculous conception like Jesus Christ, the only way a woman would be able to get pregnant in 7th century Arabia was via some sort of sexual intercourse, resulting in seminal fluid entering the vagina.
4. The Quran establishes how long a husband is to go with out sexual intercourse (iddah period) before he can divorce his wife.

Yahya if you could just please answer if you agree or disagree and if you disagree tell me what number you disagree with and why.


And those who no longer expect menstruation among your women - if you doubt, then their period is three months, and [also for] those who have not menstruated. And for those who are pregnant, their term is until they give birth. And whoever fears Allah - He will make for him of his matter ease.

[65:5] اور تمہاری عورتوں میں سے جو حیض سے مایوس ہوچکی ہوں اگر تمہیں شک ہو تو ان کی عدت تین مہینے ہے اور اُن کی بھی جو حائضہ نہیں ہوئیں۔ اور جہاں تک حمل والیوں کا تعلق ہے اُن کی عدت وضعِ حمل ہے۔ اور جو اللہ کا تقویٰ اختیار کرے اللہ اپنے حکم سے اس کے لئے آسانی پیدا کردے گا۔

Allah the Exalted clarifies the waiting period of the woman in menopause. And that is the one whose menstruation has stopped due to her older age. Her `Iddah is three months instead of the three monthly cycles for those who menstruate, which is based upon the Ayah in (Surat) Al-Baqarah. ﴿see 2:228﴾ The same for the young, who have not reached the years of menstruation. Their `Iddah is three months like those in menopause.

Al maududi
They may not have menstruated as yet either because of young age, or delayed menstrual discharge as it happens in the case of some women, or because of no discharge at all throughout life which, though rare, may also be the case. In any case, the waiting-period of such a woman is the same as of the woman, who has stopped menstruation, that is three months from the time divorce was pronounced.

Al maududi
They may not have menstruated as yet either because of young age, or delayed menstrual discharge as it happens in the case of some women, or because of no discharge at all throughout life which, though rare, may also be the case. In any case, the waiting-period of such a woman is the same as of the woman, who has stopped menstruation, that is three months from the time divorce was pronounced.

Radical Moderate said...
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